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This question has been asked to various learned person but satisfactory answer is not recieved. I shall be glad enough if you answer with proper examples.

2007-01-29 22:46:18 · 14 answers · asked by Pandit C 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

14 answers

In general, the number zero did not have its own Roman numeral, but the concept of zero as a number was well known by all medieval computists (responsible for calculating the date of Easter). They included zero (via the Latin word nulla meaning nothing) as one of nineteen epacts, or the age of the moon on March 22. The first three epacts were nullae, xi, and xxii (written in minuscule or lower case). The first known computist to use zero was Dionysius Exiguus in 525, but the concept of zero was no doubt well known earlier. Only one instance of a Roman numeral for zero is known. About 725, Bede or one of his colleagues used the letter N, the initial of nullae, in a table of epacts, all written in Roman numerals.

A notation for the value zero is quite distinct from the role of the digit zero in a positional notation system. The lack of a zero digit prevented Roman numerals from developing into a positional notation, and led to their gradual replacement by Hindu-Arabic numerals in the early second millennium. On the other hand, the lack of positional notation may have prevented the Romans from developing a "zero". Which affected which is not certain.

2007-01-29 22:51:44 · answer #1 · answered by Shashank 2 · 0 0

The earliest forms of Roman numeral values are:
I (1) V (5) X (10) L (50) C (100) D (500) M (1000)

From David Smith and Jekuthiel Ginsburg, Numbers and Numerals.
W. D. Reeve, 1937, page 14.

2016-01-02 13:51:35 · answer #2 · answered by sepia 7 · 0 0

Well, I actually don´t know for sure, still what I can tell you is: The arabs were the ones who first came with the concept of ZERO, for they expressed multiples of ten on a differente fashion than the romansdid. Example: (20) in roman numerals is XX which means "ten-ten" and in arabic numerals is 20 wich means 2 times ten, furthermore, ninety in roman numerals is XC which means one hundred (the C on the right) minus ten (the X on the left) and in arabic numerals it is simply 90 which means nine times ten. In all, I think that there was NO ZERO for the romans, for their numbering system did not require any, while the arabic system tends to simplify numbering by the addition of a ZERO.

2007-01-29 22:58:19 · answer #3 · answered by Gabriel G 3 · 0 0

In general, the number zero did not have its own Roman numeral, but the concept of zero as a number was well known by all medieval computists (responsible for calculating the date of Easter).

Wikipedia says so. The link below has more information.

2007-01-29 22:51:21 · answer #4 · answered by Donny Dutch 4 · 1 0

Zero is a representation of the null. Till the Hindus / Arabs brought the zero to the western world, the absence of a quantity was not deemed important by the western mathematicians. Hence there was no specific notation for the null. Whenever they required to represent a number greater than the numerical notations available they lined multiple notations together, we do this even today. e.g : if we have to represent eleven, we write two "1"s one after other.

Thus although the romans had the concept of null there was not numeric symbol to represent it. The absence of a symbol was considered to represent NULL

2007-01-30 02:36:43 · answer #5 · answered by si11y13yte 2 · 0 0

There is no 0 in roman numerology as the roman numbering system is different to the system used today.

They do not use placeholders (i.e. where we might have one thousand as a 1, using zeros to move it into the thousands column, Romans used M, but placed it in the same column as I or V or X (1, 5 and 10 respectively). Rather than having ten digits as we do, they used a cumulative style e.g MCM would be One Thousand and (One Hundred less than One Thouand) = 1900 in current maths.

If romans wanted to use zero to indicate none of something, it's likely they would have just written 'nullus' (meaning 'none') or 'nihil' (meaning 'nothing')

2007-01-29 22:55:05 · answer #6 · answered by Tom :: Athier than Thou 6 · 0 0

It is not. The Romans did not have the concept of zero, which made life quite difficult for their mathematicians. The concept of zero was introduced to the western world by the Arabs. The origin of zero as a mathematical concept is open to debate though, with both the Arabs and Indians claiming it as their own. Fortunately, they both maybe right.

2007-01-29 22:52:53 · answer #7 · answered by Vivek S 1 · 1 0

The concept of nothing was a challenge to mathematicians. Romans had never had this concept at all. Zero came into existance lately after number system started.

2007-01-30 04:14:15 · answer #8 · answered by mini 1 · 0 0

There is no zero in Roman numerals. The Romans did not denote 'nothing' with a figure, nor did they 'need' zero to be a placeholder, like we do in the decimal system.

2007-01-29 22:50:45 · answer #9 · answered by bonshui 6 · 1 0

no zero for Romans. The zero was found by Indians. Arabs use . instead of 0.

2007-01-29 23:01:06 · answer #10 · answered by Curie 2 · 0 0

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