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If money promised from a compensation claim should exceed money owed on a charge on a property, should it be allowed to pay for that, before the claimant even gets it?

2007-01-29 20:10:57 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

2 answers

It depends on if it has anything to do with the charge on the property. If it doesnt then no. Its up to the person who is receiving the compensation to decide how they spend it.

2007-01-29 20:25:37 · answer #1 · answered by OriginalBubble 6 · 0 0

It shouldn't do if the charge is on the property for the claimants costs if the claimant loses, then if the claimant wins and gets costs, ie the chargee should be paid out separately to any compensation payout, more facts would be useful!

2007-02-01 11:56:29 · answer #2 · answered by logicalawyer 3 · 0 0

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