I read this story this morning in the Chicago Tribune. It's about a dead Israeli soldier whose family won the right to inseminate a woman the man never knew with his frozen sperm, simply because the man "loved children". The man's mother said her son came to her in a vision twice about fathering children. The link is below:
http://www.chicagotribune.com/news/nationworld/chi-0701290159jan29,1,7098536.story?coll=chi-news-hed&ctrack=1&cset=true
I guess my specific questions are:
• How does the mother have the right to choose who her dead son's sperm is impregnated in, and why does she have that right at all?
• Even though the Israeli courts say this is "a single case", will this not be used as precedent in other similar cases?
• Do deceased people have the same rights as the living simply through their family ties?
• Isn't this activity akin to playing God?
Would like all opinions- serious answers, please.
2007-01-29
08:09:28
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2 answers
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asked by
Flea©
5
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics