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assure that the Allies would win the war, (with their help, i.e. bringing in the U.S. to " tip the scales" Since Germany, at that time was winning the war), would they promise to allow Israel/Zion a "home" in the Middle East?

(Since thereafter, in 1923, the Balfour Declaration did, in fact did come into vogue, (but was not consumated until 1948),

Is there any truth to this "opinion" that I've read on the Internet??

Those knowledgeable on the subject please respomd.

2007-01-29 05:00:59 · 3 answers · asked by charly 3 in News & Events Media & Journalism

My question is, What entity influenced the start of the Balfour Declaration--

2007-01-30 03:42:14 · update #1

3 answers

In 1917 British Government communicated to Jewish community to establish a state for them on Arab land.
http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/mod/balfour.htm
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http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20061206171115AAVbNQ3
The author was a Jew.
For a comprehensive reply of your question please visit the following web page. This is very informative.
http://www.ihr.org/jhr/v06/v06p389_John.html
Measured by British interests alone," wrote the Oxford historian Elizabeth Monroe in 1963, the Balfour Declaration "was one of the greatest mistakes in our imperial history!"

2007-01-29 07:39:04 · answer #1 · answered by snashraf 5 · 0 0

According to the World Book, the Balfour Declaration was made by a British Prime Minister.

The name Balfour Declaration is applied to two key British government policy statements associated with Conservative statesman and former Prime Minister Arthur Balfour.

* The first is the Balfour Declaration of 1917: An official letter from the British Foreign Office headed by Arthur Balfour, the UK's official Foreign Secretary (from December 1916 to October 1919), to Lord Rothschild, who was seen as a representative of the Jewish people. The letter stated that the British government "view[ed] with favour the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people, and will use their best endeavours to facilitate the achievement of this object, it being clearly understood that nothing shall be done which may prejudice the civil and religious rights of existing non-Jewish communities in Palestine, or the rights and political status enjoyed by Jews in any other country".

2007-01-29 17:53:45 · answer #2 · answered by Harley Charley 5 · 0 0

Sounds to me like some late judgment of Nazis to justify the Holocaust.
In fact the german jews behaved like all Germans in WWI, served fought and died within the regular German forces. There was no difference. The Germans in fact ran out of money and material, that has been the reason why they "lost" WWI. I do not even believe that the US forces played an important role, it has really been the support with material and money (or the missing support on the German side) that turned the war. The Germans decided to give up, that is the difference between WWI and WWII, where German forced did not surrender until the bitter end.

2007-01-29 07:26:11 · answer #3 · answered by markus0032003 4 · 0 0

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