i mean, the sex tourist is providing good income for the person selling the sex. in poor countries like thailand, many individuals and families are enjoying a much higher income and standard of living because of sex tourism. yet the men who pay these women their wages are criticised as being "dirty" / perverted / exploitative, etc. how can this be the case between two consenting adults who are both getting what they want /need out of the arrangement? how else would poor women feed their kids + families without sex tourism?
2007-01-29
00:29:13
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4 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Social Science
➔ Sociology