do they?
2007-01-28 13:30:00 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
kind of. Laws is a long A, (LAAAHZ)
Loss is more Lohs, more short.
2007-01-28 13:36:14 · answer #1 · answered by jo_elizabeth2009 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. The pronunciation differs in the way the last letters are uttered.
In 'laws', the s is pronounced like z. In 'loss', the two esses are pronounced as a deep s.
2007-01-28 18:57:42 · answer #2 · answered by greenhorn 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The phonetic spelling is the same. Thus they are pronounced the same (they are homonyms-- just like to, too, and two). The difference in the actual spelling is the root of the words. The first is a shortened version of "goodbye" which is a contraction of "God be with you". While buy comes from and Old English word "bycgan" (derived from a German word).
2016-03-29 07:13:47 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, as you can see in the example below:
Main Entry: loss
Pronunciation: 'los
Main Entry: laws
Pronunciation: 'los
2007-01-28 13:48:42 · answer #4 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No, the s in laws has a "z" sound, but the ss in loss
has an "s" sound.
2007-01-28 15:28:47 · answer #5 · answered by banjuja58 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
laws, think of "aw, isn't that cute"
loss, think of boss
2007-01-28 15:26:38 · answer #6 · answered by free 1 indeed 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
don't mix me up i already cant spell .
2007-01-28 13:39:29 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no
loss = (lôs)
law=(lô)
2007-01-28 13:38:17 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no it's like "jaws" (a "z" sound) and "moss" (an "s" sound) respectively.
2007-01-28 13:37:43 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No.
2007-01-28 13:38:13 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋