2007-01-28 06:01:01 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
There's a difference between living in a homoerotic society (which does characterize classical Greek society) and having a fear of female genitalia. This is one of the weirder questions I've come across here, and I cannot find any reference at all about Euclid's supposed fear of women, let alone some of their particular parts. In classical Greek society, women were regulated to specific and segregated roles, such as being the wife or being the public prostitute, and men freely availed themselves to either, as well as each other. Just because pederasty was common in that society (Euclid might have been one, but I can't find anything on it) does not necessarily even indicate dislike of women. After all, even Catholic popes have been known to partake of both women and little boys.
2007-01-28 06:18:24 · answer #1 · answered by Scythian1950 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Show me Euclid and I'll show you my right angle.
2007-01-28 15:22:35 · answer #2 · answered by x 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
i wouldn't be surprised. pederasty was common back then (older men taking younger boys as lovers and pupils). women overall weren't held in high regard back then.
2007-01-28 14:06:55 · answer #3 · answered by seraphprince78 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm keen to know why you ask.
2007-01-28 15:13:21 · answer #4 · answered by tehabwa 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
i don't know-why do you have extras?
2007-01-28 14:42:02 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋