After WWII , the colonies who recieved independance, did the colonizers still have favored trading status ?

Question

For example did Britain still have favored trading status with India ?

Answer 1

depending how they became separated,trough war or frendly,was making a big difference
the british created the commonwealth,and that was a favored status.
the french are having strong relations with there excolonies, with exceptions in the far east,(vietnam,cambodia)
the spanish colonies where for example in
south america allready independent,and becouse they fought themselves free from the
coloniser,at first the relation was hostile
the dutch had to give up indonesia,and where having a big dispute about papua new guinee.
no trading favors.
the portugese refused to give up angola,and
fought a bitter war, no trading favors,but brasil
and the other portugese colonies,kept stong
relations with the former coloniser.
and there is the common lingo advantage,and if the colony was also a immigration destination
from the colonising country,
family/trading relations where and are allways stronger and more favored than dealings with
other countries.

Answer 2

Well, yes. They (the East India company) owned all the ships, perhaps even the ports, and probably the Indian companies too.

In addition, an anglo-Indian free-trade agreement covering most types of products was easy to set up (as it changed nothing from before and so did not require long negotiations) and was of benefit to both countries.

Plus, nowhere else was there an active trade-route & demand for Indian tea & textiles.

Answer 3

oh yes, indirectly via 3rd party countries for they can not without tea in England.

Answer 4

Probably so, since their ties go back a long way.