English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

I need a good reason to blame Germany because I'm doing a debate, and I need a good reason why the Germans were wrong [I'm only concentrating on France not the rest of Europe]
thanks thanks
The only reason I have is: Germany declared war on France first.

2007-01-27 16:54:51 · 10 answers · asked by hiho 2 in Arts & Humanities History

10 answers

Germany was too jumpy and nervous, which led to them prematurely declaring war. When Russia mobilized in preparation for supporting (possibly) their ally Serbia against Austria-Hungary, Germany felt they had no option but to invade France. Why? Because the Schlieffen Plan (their ONLY war plan) required them to invade France first, knock them out of the game in 40 days, and then turn to the Eastern front to deal with Russia.

In this argument, Germany is to blame for not providing for war on only ONE front when making their war plans (i.e. they had no plan "B", .. or "C"... or whatever). If Russia was a perceived threat, they had to invade France because France and Russia were in an alliance.

Hope this helps.

2007-01-28 12:42:14 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Although today it is reasonably clear that Germany fought the war with the general aim of transforming itself from a merely continental power to a true world power, the fact is that at no point did the German government know just what its peace terms would be if it won. It might have annexed Belgium and part of the industrial regions of northern France, though bringing hostile, non-German populations into the Empire might not have seemed such a good idea if the occasion actually arose. More likely, or more rationally, the Germans would have contented themselves with demilitarizing these areas.

From the British, they would probably have demanded nothing but more African colonies and the unrestricted right to expand the German High Seas Fleet. In Eastern Europe, they would be more likely to have established friendly satellite countries in areas formerly belonging to the defunct empires than to have directly annexed much territory. It seems to me that the Austrian and Ottoman Empires were just as likely to have fallen apart even if the Central Powers had won. The Hungarians were practically independent before the war, after all, and the chaos caused by the eclipse of Russia would have created opportunities for them which they could exploit only without the restraint of Vienna. As for the Ottoman Empire, most of it had already fallen to British invasion or native revolt. No one would have seen much benefit in putting it back together again, not even the Turks.

Russia would probably not have become communist and NAZI Germany would not have came to power.

2007-01-27 17:48:02 · answer #2 · answered by patriot p 2 · 0 0

First: You have to stand by your friends, because otherwise you are going to loose them and in a dangerous world this would mean destruction. So if Russia thinks she has to protect Serbia, then France must help Russia. Second: You could argue that Germany was a constant threat to others. Example: The two crises about Morocco. In the second crisis Germany succeded in blackmailing France to enlarge Cameroon. Another example: In July 1914 Germany protects Austria-Hungary to enable her to humiliate Serbia. (These are not my opinions. I just try to see the French point of view. At the beginning of the crisis of July 14 the French government debated about how they could find a means to make war inevitable.)

2007-01-27 22:40:29 · answer #3 · answered by mai-ling 5 · 0 0

Actually, both sides in that war, Allies and Central Powers, were equally at fault! England and France had divided Africa and Asia among themselves and Germany and Austria-Hungary wanted to redivide the world so they could enrich their countries through colonial plunder.

In a way, it was a "falling out among thieves" - but working class Europeans had to pay the price for this battle among the rich over the profits of colonialism. The rich made the profits from the war, and the poor got drafted to go out and die in the trenches!

2007-01-27 17:12:21 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The largest reason seems to be the French loss of Alsace-Lorraine to Germany in the Franco-Prussian war and a general sense of inferiority for loosing the war so easily. There were other minor squables, such as Morocco being given to France by Britain in 1904, and colonial jocking for power in Africa.

2016-05-24 07:50:10 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

How about Germany invaded France?

2007-01-27 17:06:38 · answer #6 · answered by MT C 6 · 0 1

You might want to do research on the causes of World War One, before you get PWNed....
It was the Austrio-Hungarian Empire that was at War with the Allies, as a result of treaties and alliances....

2007-01-27 17:04:51 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Read up on the Treaty of Versailles.
The French have plenty of reasons they put in it to make the G-men pay for quite some time.

2007-01-27 18:52:00 · answer #8 · answered by chris 4 · 0 0

someone would have done it anyway. the french are always so quick to throw up white flags.might as well have been the germans. the french are the ultimate expression of liberal socialist. only good for making perfume and designer clothes. they love homo;s and smell badly and they;re woman should shave their armpits, thats just nasty.

2007-01-28 08:03:19 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Have you actually read your history?

I'm giving you some titles. Read them and you'll have your answers. And you'll understand that much more about the last 90 years of world history to boot.

2007-01-27 17:08:04 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers