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1 answers

I'm guessing that the 'i' is the unit imaginary. But, in any case, the function doesn't have an accumulation point since it diverges ('almost' linearly with n)) to ±(∞+i∞) as
n -> ∞ (It's ± since -1^n alternates sign with even and odd values of n)

OTOH it *does* converge to the unit pole on a Riemann sphere, if you want to do the topological mapping ☺


Doug

2007-01-27 13:28:19 · answer #1 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0 0

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