The framers of the Constitution who wrote this document were all men. Could it be that back then and for generations to come, women were left out because they defaulted on not being fully human and equal? Things have changed since then! But, why weren't they really included in the original document?
2007-01-27 10:10:20 · 4 answers · asked by ZORRO 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Women were essentially the property of their husbands - women didn't get to vote, and didn't get to administer their own property once married. So no, the framers did not consider women in the constitution - at least, not explicitly. When they said all men are created equal, they meant white men, not women or slaves.
Things have changed, and now women are considered equal in law. That's the wonder of the constitution - the framers' wording was sufficiently flexible to deal with a lot of social change over 200 years.
2007-01-27 11:10:47 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Men is a genneral term. Ever heard of Thats one small step for a man, one giant leap for man kind. Ever heard of the 21st amendment
2007-01-27 18:19:32 · answer #2 · answered by cmdfangon 1 · 0⤊ 2⤋
You already said it... Those were different times.
2007-01-27 18:32:25 · answer #3 · answered by lordkelvin 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
if this isn't a joke you are pretty dumb. "all men" implies both men and women "mankind"...
2007-01-27 18:19:27 · answer #4 · answered by brianatm6 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋