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Does it basically mean that you can not sue the state or the government without their consent?

2007-01-27 05:04:38 · 4 answers · asked by dre.4.prez 2 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

4 answers

Ok, so here is what I think the 11th amendment means.

I believe that the amendment simply limits the ability of federal courts to hear cases brought by citizens against individual states.
Specifically non-residents of a states or foreigners vs a state.

So, I believe that if the case was Joe (Alabama resident) vs Alabama, that this case could eventually be heard by federal courts, but if the case was Mary(Tennessee resident) vs Alabama then federal courts would never be able to hear this case according to the 11th amendment.

I believe this to be correct. The wording of the amendment is kinda tricky and I had to read through it several times.....

I hope this helped!

2007-01-28 03:25:29 · answer #1 · answered by xoil1321321432423 4 · 0 0

Here you ask a decent, meaningful question and the people who whose main concern is American Idol and football insult you. Hold on...I'm looking it up now.

"The amendment was passed after the ruling ... that federal courts had the authority to hear cases in law and equity against states by private citizens, and that states did not enjoy sovereign immunity from suits made by citizens of other states."

It appears that it has to do with the authority of the federal courts to hear certain matters brought against the states by private citizens.

2007-01-27 05:13:07 · answer #2 · answered by Joe C 5 · 1 1

yes

2007-01-27 05:07:38 · answer #3 · answered by blink_rulez_1990 2 · 1 3

HUH

2007-01-27 05:07:17 · answer #4 · answered by ju_ty 1 · 2 2

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