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I know the answer, just not how to get there. I must be missing something stupidly easy.

2007-01-26 13:47:24 · 6 answers · asked by srycroft 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

6 answers

Northstar, you dropped the square on the denominator between your second and third steps.

The substitution tan u = x is what you want to use here. This gives you dx = sec² u du. Substituting:

∫1/(1+tan² u)² sec² u du
∫1/(sec² u)² sec² u du
∫sec² u/sec⁴ u du
∫1/sec² u du
∫cos² u du

Using cos² u = (cos (2u) + 1)/2

1/2 + ∫cos (2u) + 1 du
Now we integrate:
sin (2u)/4 + u + C

The back-substitution of u is obvious. Handling the sin (2u)/4 requires:

sin (2u)/4
sin u cos u/2
tan u cos² u/2
tan u/(2 sec² u)
tan u/(2 tan² u + 2)
x/(2x²+2)

So the final answer is:

x/(2x²+2) + arctan (x) + C

2007-01-26 14:44:23 · answer #1 · answered by Pascal 7 · 0 0

Well I wouldn't say stupidly easy but have you been studying substitution integrals recently?

Do you know any trigonometric identities of the form:
1+x^2 = SOMETHING.

Maybe 1 + tan^2(theta) or equivalent. And don't forget the dx term. If you substitute in for x or x^2 you must include the dx substitution.

2007-01-26 13:54:43 · answer #2 · answered by KingGeorge 5 · 0 0

Let x = tan theta. Then dx = sec^2 theta dtheta

int 1/(1+x^2)^2 dx = int 1/sec^4 theta sec^2 theta dtheta
= int 1/sec^2 theta dtheta
= int cos^2 theta dtheta
= int (1 + cos 2 theta)/2) dtheta
= theta/2 + sin (2 theta) /4 + c
= (arctan x) /2 + x / (2(x^2 + 1)) + c

2007-01-26 14:35:29 · answer #3 · answered by Ken M 3 · 0 0

let x=tan y
dx= (sec^2 y) dy

(sec^2 y)/(1 + tan^2 y)^2=(sec^2 y)/(sec^4 y)=1/sec^2y=cos^2 y =(1 + cos 2y)/2 dy

ans= 1/2y + 1/4sin2y + C

2007-01-26 14:42:48 · answer #4 · answered by Bull 2 · 0 0

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2016-12-16 14:29:47 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Use a trig substitution.

Let
tan θ = x
sec²θ dθ = dx

Now we can integrate.

∫{1/(1+x²)²}dx = ∫{sec²θ/(1 + tan²θ)}dθ = ∫{sec²θ/sec²θ}dθ
= ∫dθ = θ + C = arctan(x) + C

2007-01-26 14:12:22 · answer #6 · answered by Northstar 7 · 0 0

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