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I believe there is a grammatical rule that considers a sentence where an inanimate object stating something to be incorrect, but I cannot find it. For example, "the paper stated it was 45 degrees today" would be an incorrect sentence. But, "the doctor stated I was going to be fine" is grammatically correct. Is there such a rule? Or are both sentences correct? Please advise.

2007-01-25 17:52:11 · 3 answers · asked by jaysydw 3 in Education & Reference Words & Wordplay

3 answers

No rule found, but I did find the following

Many media workers have lately been using this phrase: "... speak to the issue of ...," as in this sentence: "The Bill seeks to speak to the issue of stray dogs littering the city." Is that usage correct? I remember my grammar teacher stating that people do not speak to inanimate objects thus the correct usage should be: "The Bill addresses the issue of stray dogs littering the city." Which is correct?--John Mussington, Antigua and Barbuda

Although the use of "addresses" sounds "technically" correct, the use of "speaks to..." is also correct. When "speaks to" is used in the case of an appeal, or in relation to something, it is perfectly acceptable. As in, "The Church will speak to the real issue of..." or "The story spoke to him directly." Both are inanimate objects, however, they both relate and appeal to a specific topic/issue. So, in this case, since the Bill is an appeal for the rectification of a specific issue, then it is used correctly.--Suzanne Miskel

I would argue for "address" on the grounds of clarity. But here's an interesting experiment. Doing a Google search for the phrase "address the issue" (be sure to include the quotes) yields 7,500,000 page results; the phrase "speak to the issue" yields a mere 122,000 results. A similar disparity shows up with "addresses" and "speaks." So that's one indicator that "address" could very well be the preferred construction. A Google search should by no means have the final say in matters of usage, but its results can be interesting, particularly in this case.--Karl, OWL Webmaster

2007-01-25 18:03:27 · answer #1 · answered by The Answer Man 5 · 0 0

Although technically a paper cannot state anything due to its lack of intelligence, I am not aware of such a rule. Languages are mutable and new words and acceptable syntax are added.

The word state came from Latin. For instance, the word "estar" means "to be" in Spanish, and the past participle is "estado" which can mean state. To be is to exist, and in English the word "state" can mean "to put into existence". The paper put the idea of 45 degrees into existence, but technically whoever wrote it, put it into existence, if it was even written by a person.

I have not heard of such a rule, but I assume it's acceptable, taking into consideration artificial intelligence.

2007-01-26 03:47:52 · answer #2 · answered by Researcher of Knowledge 1 · 0 0

I can't find the specific rule either but since "state" can be used with abstract nouns, as in: "the rules state ...", I am inclined to think that it should be okay for inanimate objects as well, although I am happy to be proved wrong.

2007-01-26 02:09:26 · answer #3 · answered by Bethany 7 · 0 0

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