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I need to justify whether the given statement is always, sometimes or never true.

In triangle EFG, if EF is not congruent to FG, then m angle G> m angle E

2007-01-25 13:56:09 · 5 answers · asked by hoopmaster1 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

5 answers

In triangle EFG,side EF is not congruent to side FG
Therefore So Any of these angles may either be smaller or greater than the other.
Therefore,the statement is sometime true

2007-01-25 14:35:13 · answer #1 · answered by alpha 7 · 0 0

In any triangle,
The smallest side is always opposite the smallest angle.
The medium side is always opposite the medium angle.
The largest side is always opposite the largest angle.

and vise-versa.

(Note: If two of the sides happened to be equal, then the angles opposite those sides would be equal, but that is not the case in this problem.)

If EFG is a triangle, then angle G is opposite EF and angle E is opposite FG.

According to the rule above, if EF is larger than FG, then angle G is larger than angle E. However, if FG is larger than EF, then angle E is larger than angle G.

Therefore, the answer is "sometimes"

2007-01-25 22:18:36 · answer #2 · answered by Pythagoras 7 · 0 0

Sometimes true. If EF was congruent to FG, you would have an isocoles triangle. Since this isn't so, the two otherwise equal angles G and E are not equal. However, there isn't enough info to determine which is bigger.

2007-01-25 22:14:48 · answer #3 · answered by cattbarf 7 · 0 0

It's sometimes true. It's true when EF is longer than FG, and false when FG is longer than EF.

2007-01-25 22:13:20 · answer #4 · answered by Chris S 5 · 0 0

Though question

2007-01-25 22:34:38 · answer #5 · answered by jmm120 2 · 0 0

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