explain
2007-01-25 10:50:25 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
Many people who condemn homosexuality would also condemn sodomy. It is common for individuals from dogmatic religious denominations to cite the Bible as proof of their position and of God's condemnation.
However, if a person will enter into a study with an open mind and do their own research, they will realize that MOST of the Bible passages that include a prohibition of sodomy also list many other "sins" , most of which have become mute and obsolete (eg: eating shell-fish, eating pork, etc.) These prohibitions were catagorized in the Levitical Laws and were set-forth primarily as safeguards for health, sanitation, interpersonal relationships.
Only a few of the prohibitions were carried-over into the modern-day church as "sins". Some denominations still consider it "sin" to not observe Saturday as the Sabbath Day. By others, it is considered unholy to have a store or business open on sunday, or to go shopping on sunday.
But prohibitions are often revised, or done away with, depending upon current circumstance. Much of what was once considered "sin" is no longer considered as such. But also, some other SELECTIVE "sins" continue to promote fear, prejudice, and personal hatred toward any person who does not conform.
The problem with many church-goers is that they have never read the Bible, or have never taken the time to do independent and comparative studies. Many "religious" people parrot the thoughts and words they have been taught to say, without much mindfulness given to any particular issue.
2007-01-25 12:31:21 · answer #1 · answered by J Andy A 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, because it's not like people are harmed by you committing sodomy. When you cheat on your gf/bf/husband/wife, does someone get hurt? Yes. When you break a law, does someone get hurt? Most of the time, unless it's a really stupid law. Does someone get hurt when you have consensual sex with a person of the same gender (or oral/anal sex with the opposite gender, for that matter)? No. That's why it's not immoral.
2007-01-25 19:00:27 · answer #2 · answered by guitarherofairy 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Sounds like a new cologne by CK.
"Immoral Sodomy"...life is now !
2007-01-25 19:36:56 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
A sexual act between two consenting adults is neither immoral nor subject to judgment of others that are not involved in such an act.
2007-01-25 19:02:36 · answer #4 · answered by IndyT- For Da Ben Dan 6 · 4⤊ 0⤋
I don't think any sexual activity amongst adult, consensual partners is immoral, but that's just me. My own likes happen to be on the more conservative end of the spectrum, just as a benchmark.
2007-01-25 19:02:06 · answer #5 · answered by nyboxers73 3 · 3⤊ 0⤋
lol @ just_ine_...
I believe you are refering to a Sodomite, not Sodomy.
Although consensual sodomy is consider immoral in some religions it is important to remember that in this context it is referring to all non-vaginal sexual intercourse and thus applys equal to gays and straights.
However I think that's all blarney
2007-01-25 19:20:07 · answer #6 · answered by collegedebt 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
If you are "sodomizing" someone (who still uses that word??) and it is rape...yes its immoral. Its a crime. But if the act is done between two willing people....its their sexual choice. Masturbation use to be looked at as immoral...and who doesnt do that??!!!
2007-01-25 19:00:08 · answer #7 · answered by Raynebow_Diva 6 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Nope. No sexual act is immoral in itself- it's who you do it with, when you do it, and for what purpose that imbue it with immorality.
That's how I view it, at least.
2007-01-25 20:14:18 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well it's certainly impossible...seeing as the fabled city doesn't exist...therefore one cannot be a citizen of said city.
2007-01-25 19:03:38 · answer #9 · answered by DEATH 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Explain yourself.....
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=brapM_LyY58
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2007-01-25 18:59:46 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋