Don't get me wrong - I don't begrudge my ex the support I pay. But I *do* wonder why I have to pay 100% of the income tax on money that she gets to spend - and she does not pay any income tax on it. Why does the recipient of the child support income not have to pay half - or at least some portion of - the money they receive?
It really seems like a dis-incentive for a lot of less honest fathers to pay support. Please help me understand the legal reasons, if not fairness of this. And please - I *know* that single mom's have it tough - that's not a reason. Single, divorced dad's have it tough too - believe me.
2007-01-25
05:02:42
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5 answers
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asked by
piperjoe68
3
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics
Don't get me wrong - I don't begrudge my ex any of the support I pay. But I *do* wonder why I have to pay 100% of the income tax on money that she gets to spend. It really seems like a dis-incentive for a lot of less honest fathers to pay support.
I understand that the recipient doesn't pay tax because the supporter has already paid - but that's exactly my point. Since the recipient is getting the full benefit of spending the money (without any oversight to ensure it's spent correctly, I'd add), what is the legal/common-sense justifications for why they don't they have to pay a portion of the income tax?
Single moms - please don't beat me up too badly about this - I *know* you have it tough - but that's not really a valid explanation to my question. Honest, divorced dad's have it tough too - believe me.
2007-01-25
08:03:09 ·
update #1