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i need to know a simple way of saying the process the U.S. took to get the area gained during the Texas Annexation?

2007-01-25 04:57:12 · 8 answers · asked by northbeachlover 2 in Arts & Humanities History

8 answers

Texas leguslature ok'd the merger and the US Congress had to OK it.

When Texas joined the Union in 1845, the vast territory of the republic was mostly unsettled and was considered public land. The state did not turn over ownership of those public lands to the federal government upon joining the Union. Instead, the classic, if peculiar, shape of Texas known today was determined as part of the Compromise of 1850. For a $10 million price tag, Texas sold 98,300 square miles of that public land to the United States. The land included parts of Colorado, Kansas, New Mexico, Oklahoma, and Wyoming.

In February 1845, Texas approved the resolution to enter the Union. Part of that resolution, which came to be known as the Constitution of 1845, stated that Texas would retain its right to divide into four states in addition to the original Texas. Although most Texans can't imagine splitting up the Lone Star State, the legal right to do so still remains! Texas also has the right to cecede from the union, it's in its constitution.

2007-01-25 05:14:50 · answer #1 · answered by dem_dogs 3 · 2 1

First, in the 1800s, Mexico opened its borders to immigrants. By the mid-1830s, American immigrants outnumbered native born Mexicans by 4:1, though the area remained sparsely populated. The Americans in Texas rebelled against Mexico and won their independence, and then sought to join the Union. However, it was a sticky political situation because Northerners feared more slave states would be carved out of Texas, so the new republic remained independent while Mexico rejected the peace treaty recognizing Texan independence. The Texas question lingered until the last day of John Tyler's administration, who was a southerner from Virginia, when he notified Texan President Sam Houston that the United States had invited Texas to join the Union. It was "re"-annexed shortly thereafter by James K. Polk and his Democratic-led Congress.

2007-01-25 06:17:24 · answer #2 · answered by beware_the_monkey 2 · 3 0

"Well back in the 1840's we decided that we would like to have Texas so we basically sent in the army and took it. I believe that we got it legally in the treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo, but I'm not positive."

No. Texas was formally joined with the Union in 1845. Taylor's Army of Observation, under Polk's guidance, provoked the Mexican War a year later.

2007-01-25 06:19:49 · answer #3 · answered by jelay11 2 · 0 0

good day i'm a Northern Mexican combination This land belongs to the natives and maximum Mexicans are mestizo My family is from Chihuahua and New Mexico my ancestors have been right here longer than any eu has, confident it grow to be stolen! tried flipping it around in yet another universe you will possibly say it grow to be stolen. that's in basic terms being bias. i'm Mexican-American and that i'm proud. it is my united states of america, and that i loveI this united states of america! yet i do no longer forget approximately my roots and family historic past! i do no longer pay interest to the imaginary line contained in the sand america is in basic terms the different element of Mexico because of the fact we are community have been a mix race! If white human beings prefer to deport us Then I leave it as much as God and karma, because of the fact on the top of the day that's going to likely be ok! Empires do no longer final invariably! Mexico my no longer final invariably the two, however the natives my race have been right here until eventually now the two international places have been conceived. Nationalism purely separates! that's stupid i do no longer %. a part, I in basic terms choose peace!

2016-09-27 23:36:19 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Texas was not annexed. It joined by treaty. The treaty had terms that required Texas to surrender parts of its territory to the US.

2007-01-25 05:05:42 · answer #5 · answered by Sophist 7 · 0 0

Well back in the 1840's we decided that we would like to have Texas so we basically sent in the army and took it. I believe that we got it legally in the treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo, but I'm not positive.

2007-01-25 05:11:27 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

I am mexican and my ancestors with recorded documents going back to 1630 have all been in Mexico. Texas was a province of Mexico (Nuevo Espana) and my ancestors had freely traveled from the interior of Mexico up to Texas and back since 1723 with recorded documents in Catholic Church Records and the Real Audencia that was based in Guadalajara, Mexico as those documents clearly show with hand writing Texas (Thexas) was often mentioned as a provincia of Mexico (Nuevo Espana). The first Govenor and Capitan elected for Texas in 1723 was Capitan Juan Manuel Olivan Rebolledo. He was also an Oidor of the Real Audencia in Guadalajara, Mexico and was married to the youngest daughter (mexican born) of a Conde who financed expeditions to travel north toTexas in the late 1600 s. Those people came from the interior of Mexico. After we had our independence from Spain to abolish the inquistion which occured in 1811, by 1824 the provinces including Texas had signed to form our country Mexico known as "Adhesion Al Federalismo." The Mexicans that live in Texas since 1723 had voted and signed to be a province of Mexico in 1824 which made it Federal Law: http://oi57.tinypic.com/s5cz10.jpg

Americans that came in the 1830 s had no right to separate Texas from Mexico because they did not have the authority since the Mexicans that lived in Texas and predated them as far back as 1723 decided to be a province of Mexico in 1824. What Sam Houston did was a violation of Federal Law of Mexico, they took an oath to the Constition of Mexico in 1834 when they had newly arrived to Texas, only to tear up their oath in 1836 and broke Mexican Federal Law and the rights of Mexicans that lived in Texas way before they did. Those americans make up excuses, manipulation to make themselves look like as if they legaly took Texas when they took it by force. If immigrants can move to another country, and then decide to separate that section where they live? Why don t you see the Muslim communities in England decide to separate land away from England to form their own countries in Europe???

2015-05-20 08:03:41 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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2014-05-28 23:53:59 · answer #8 · answered by WhiteOak14 1 · 0 0

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