Can anybody prove that Rs.1 is equal to 1 paisa? I can prove..it's an open challenge!!!?

Answer 1

Here it goes:-
1) One Re= 100ps
=10ps x10ps (Notice the how the equation goes haywire from here)
=0.1Re X0.1Re
=0.01Re
= 1paisa
How to prove 4 =5? Anyone?

Answer 2

Currency Calculations: The Multiplications, Division allows only for a constant number to currency or currency to constant.

We Don't have currency * currency or currency/currency calculations.

Eg: 1 rs = 100 ps
= 10 ps * 10 (constant) (not a currency)
= 0.1 rs * 10 (constant)
= 1 rs
Therefore 1 Rs Does not equal to 1 paisa. 1 Rs = 1 Rs.

Answer 3

1 Rupee Paisa

Answer 4

scythian is on the mark here: the positive integers are rigorously constructed using Peano's axioms, and 1+1 is the immediate successor of 1, which is defined as 2. But I would wholly disagree with scythian's argument that Godel's Incompleteness Theorems are controversial; the only mathematicians that seriously feel this way are fringe logicians and maniacal set theorists. Godel's theorems opened up alot of new venues in mathematics, and some might say "freed" us from the almost certain rigorous demise to which we were headed. Basically, Hilbert in 1900 asked "could somebody please set up a system of axioms which is completely consistent and serves as a basis for all math?", to which Godel responded, several years later, "no, no one can; any axiomatic system describing the integers will have certain unprovable statements, and some which are consistent when treated both as true and as false." To summarize: 1+1 is 2 because it is defined that way, axiomatically, and thus cannot be proven under the standard system of Peano's axioms. Steve EDIT - Above, when I say "unprovable statements", I mean statements treated as true, but not proved as such (not including axioms). When I talk about a statement being "consistent when treated both as true and as false", I mean independent of the current axiomatic framework; this is equivalent to saying the framework cannot prove its own consistency.

Answer 5

i think it is a tricky question i think ten minutes thn i find that
1rs=100 paise
0= nothing no value
so Rs 1= 1paise
i have another idea
1 rs = 100 paise
100paise = 1*1*1* (hundred times) = i
so Rs 1= 1paise

Answer 6

It is a fact that one rupee is not equavalent to one paise. Ofcourse you can prove it if you want.. in different context, through some gimmicks of interchanging the units etc.. But the real thing , there lot of other serious things to be resolved and divert the energy to that area.

Answer 7

By playing some games with the numbers & units, u may be able to. There are many other silly things that can be proved by these methods.

Answer 8

ok mr know-it-all, let's see u use ur great logic by giving a shopkeeper 1 paisa instead of Re. 1!

Answer 9

1 rs= 100 ps zero has no value

Answer 10

hey this is wrong u cant convert both 10 into 0.1 rupees becoz its n times paise so u can convert only one 10 to 0.1 rupee
if u do in this way u wll get 1 rupee = 1 rupee
ie 1 rupee = 100 paize