can a country has absolute advantage in producing two goods referring to the ricardian model?

Question

while it has comparative advantage only in one good.

Answer 1

It is the comparative advantages that matter not the absolute advantages. And think in terms of opportunity cost.

Answer 2

this occurs in the ricardian model because both countries benefit from specialization in the production of a specific good. it may seem like the country with absolute advantage in both goods would be made worse-off by importing goods, but according to economic theory, it benefits from getting a higher price for the good it has a comparative advantage in (and therefore exports) and a lower price for the good where the other country has a comparative advantage