because you have the NOR in there, it should be "is"
2007-01-24 07:07:34
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answer #1
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answered by an_articulate_soul 4
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Neither John nor Mary is because You have a conjunctive subject.So in this case neither is considered the subject.Mary is singular ,John is singular so go with a singular the verb. (is)
2007-01-24 15:20:21
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answer #2
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answered by Sugar 7
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When you address a Statement like the one you demonstrated, you are directly involving John (He)...or Mary (She)... individually..
This is the singular Form of a Pronoun
These pronouns are dealt with similarly, and (is) in verb to BE will suite them right in the Present Tense...
You use (ARE) when you use the word (Both) John & Mary, which will make Plural...
You then deal with BOTH as though you say (THEY), which will take (ARE) instead of (IS),,,using Verb to BE in the present Tense...
2007-01-24 15:15:12
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answer #3
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answered by FOREVER AUTUMN 5
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neither john nor mary ARE able is correct
2007-01-24 15:37:17
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answer #4
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answered by lizziepea 3
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I vote for the singular because they are no longer a plural with the neither/nor qualifiers.
2007-01-24 15:09:31
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answer #5
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answered by Babs 7
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The word neither when combined with nor in this sentence really means "neither one" so you are talking singular and should use "is." Think of it as "Neither one is able."
2007-01-24 15:09:38
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answer #6
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answered by Rich Z 7
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It's neither IS because you're saying neither ONE is able, so ONE takes a single verb (to agree with the single subject).
2007-01-24 15:10:50
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answer #7
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answered by macguffin 5
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IS... take away "John nor Mary" and then restate the sentence "neither is able."
2007-01-24 15:07:38
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answer #8
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answered by I hate friggin' crybabies 5
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ARE. the statement is about 2 therefore PLURAL.
edit: They are not able.
John and Mary are not able.
Same thing.
2007-01-24 15:13:31
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answer #9
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answered by jetero41 3
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Say "is" because, since you have "nor," you are dealing with a singular subject. :)
2007-01-24 15:14:52
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answer #10
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answered by JK 3
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