If the median home price represents the price where half of the homes sold above that price and half sold below it in a given market (a seemingly more conservative estimate than average home price which could be skewed by very expensive home sales), could one multiply their home purchase price by the % change in median home price to arrive at a fairly accurate estimate of what their home is presently worth? For example, if the median home price has gone up 25% over the past five years, would multiplying my purchase price by 25% give me an accurate estimate of the present day value of my house? Thanks.
2007-01-24
04:11:00
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4 answers
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asked by
JD
1
in
Business & Finance
➔ Renting & Real Estate