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2007-01-24 01:40:18 · 3 answers · asked by luscious_berry08 1 in Arts & Humanities History

3 answers

He wasn't

2007-01-24 01:47:34 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

dude is right he wasnt technically a robber baron that term was used way before rockefellers time

2007-01-24 09:48:41 · answer #2 · answered by saunders_md 2 · 0 1

because he was able to employ pure capitalism and generate huge profit & experience extreme profitability from his business ventures.

at the time there was no 'social' laws that restrained business by having controls on polution and parity payments for what we know today as social security or workmen's compensation.

2007-01-24 09:50:54 · answer #3 · answered by dharp66 3 · 0 1

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