For this problem, you use the trigonometric identity:
sin^2(x) + cos(x) - 1 = 0
we know that sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1 [pythagorean identity]
so, sin^2(x) = 1 - cos^2(x)
now substituting this expression for sin^2(x) into the original function
1 - cos^2(x) + cos(x) -1 = 0
-cos^2(x) + cos(x) = 0
factorizing gives:
cos(x)[1-cos(x)] = 0
therefore: cos(x) = 0 or 1 - cos(x) = 0
for cos(x) = 0
x = arcos 0
x = 90
x = pi/2, -pi/2 (which is 3pi/2)
for 1 - cos(x) = 0
1 = cos(x)
x = arcos 1
x = 0
So you have three solutions that are:
x = 0, pi/2, 3pi/2 (where 0 < x < 2pi)
Hope this helps! =)
2007-01-23 20:06:23
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answer #1
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answered by thugster17 2
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Start by using the trigonometric identity sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1.
Solving this for sin^2(x) gives sin^2(x) = 1 - cos^2(x). Now, you can substitute this into the original equation.
Substituting sin^2(x) = 1 - cos^2(x) into sin^2(x)+cos(x)-1=0 yields:
1 - cos^2(x) + cos(x) - 1 = 0. The 1's cancel out and you're left with:
cos(x) - cos^2(x) = 0. Factor this out to get
cos(x)(1 - cos(x)) = 0. So this equation is valid when cos(x) = 0 and when 1 - cos(x) = 0.
For cos(x) = 0, x = pi/2 and -pi/2
For 1 - cos(x) = 0 => cos(x) = 1, x = 0
So there are 3 solutions to the equation. Finally plug them all into the original equation to make sure they all work (they do).
EDIT: Upon submittal, I realized there was more than one solution, and redid my derivation. I'm not sure of your math ability but to avoid any confusion, -pi/2 is in the same spot on the unit circle as 3pi/2 and they are both valid solutions.
2007-01-23 20:14:13
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answer #2
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answered by FlashyJerry 1
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Flashy and Thugster are both almost correct.
sin^2(x)+cos(x)-1=0
1- cos^2(x)+cos(x)-1=0
- cos^2(x)+cos(x) =0
cos(x)*( 1 - cos(x)) = 0,
so cos(x) = 1 or 0. The only solutions on the circle 0<= x < 2 pi
are
x = 0, pi/2, and 3*pi/2. In degrees, these are 0, 90, and 270.
2007-01-23 20:22:03
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answer #3
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answered by Hans S 1
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Let's assume you want solutions in the interval 0 <= x < 2pi.
sin^2(x) + cos(x) - 1 = 0
First, use the fact that sin^2(x) = 1 - cos^2(x)
1 - cos^2(x) + cos(x) - 1 = 0
Note that the 1 and -1 cancel out, giving us
-cos^2(x) + cos(x) = 0
Factor out cos(x),
cos(x) [-cos(x) + 1] = 0
This gives us two equations:
cos(x) = 0, and
-cos(x) + 1 = 0
Therefore,
cos(x) = 0
cos(x) = 1
All we have to do is individually solve these.
cos(x) is equal to 0 at the points x = {pi/2, 3pi/2}
cos(x) is equal to 1 at the points x = {0}
Therefore, our solutions are
x = {pi/2, 3pi/2, 0}
2007-01-23 20:24:36
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answer #4
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answered by Puggy 7
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sin2x - cosx - 2sinx +1 = 0 thus, 2sinxcosx - cosx - 2sinx +1 = 0 ( as sin2x = 2sinxcosx ) 2sinx ( cosx - 1 ) - 1 ( cosx - 1 ) = 0 ( by taking out 2sinx and -1 common...) ( cosx - 1 ) ( 2sinx - 1 ) = 0 ( by taking out ( cosx - 1 ) common....) thus, either ( cosx - 1 ) = 0 or ( 2sinx - 1 ) = 0 cosx = 1 or sinx = 1/2 thus, x = 0 or x = 30 degree
2016-03-28 23:56:35
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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i get it!!!
sin x2 equals the cost of losing your soul (known as -1) which equals (=) 0
so X (me) = 0
2007-01-23 20:00:21
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answer #6
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answered by Tiffi Poodle Pie 69 2
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HAHAHAHAHA!!!it's so funny whenever i see math..
2007-01-23 19:58:09
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answer #7
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answered by disco ball 4
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maybe you should ask your teacher.............
2007-01-23 19:59:48
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answer #8
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answered by Ms. Skellinton 2
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