I entered into a lease on June 19 2006, my wife and I requested a copy of the lease on 18 January 2007. When we were given the lease I noticed that it had not been signed on 18 Jan. 2007 but had been back dated to Jan. 17 2007. I'm curious if this is legit or a foul. Further, the property manager we entered the lease agreement with has since been replaced, the lease is signed by the new manager and not the original. Is this kosher?
2007-01-23 16:04:07 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Business & Finance ➔ Renting & Real Estate
I think only a copy of the original June 19, 2006 lease would be valid. Did you renew or sign a new lease on Jan 07. If not you are only obligated by the lease that you signed and agreed to.
2007-01-23 17:08:39 · answer #1 · answered by the_buccaru 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
confident the owner can harm your credit. they are in a position to't positioned down month to month and a 365 days's hire on a similar settlement. It has to pass one way or yet another? you ought to are turning out to be the data formerly you signed. Ask him/her.
2016-11-01 03:29:00 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋