2007-01-23 08:24:08 · 5 answers · asked by Sheree 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Mythology & Folklore
We can't.
2007-01-23 08:29:30 · answer #1 · answered by Dr. NG 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If a work was found that was claimed to be a previously undiscovered Shakespearean play, such a claim would be carefully scrutinised. The paper it would be on would be scientifically dated, as would the type of ink be tested. This would determine if they were of an age and style fitting the late 1500s/early 1600s.
Furthermore, it would be read thoroughly by expert scholars in Shakespearean literature, who would determine if it was in keeping with the Bard's writing style.
However, there is to date no evidence of a previously unpublicised Shakespeare play.
2007-01-23 16:31:22 · answer #2 · answered by scattycat 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't think there is a 37th Shakespeare play, because I don't think he wrote more than 10 or so, and then became a middle man.
2007-01-23 16:30:13 · answer #3 · answered by ... 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
We can't be sure. Scholars are even arguing whether the plays were actually written by the playwright Christopher Marlowe, and not someone called Shakespeare at all. So if they can't even be sure whether Shakespeare wrote the plays, there's no way there'll be a clear consensus on whether a newly found play was written by him!
2007-01-23 16:49:17 · answer #4 · answered by Nikita21 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Something can only be definate if there is proof of its existence. So if there is no proof then you can't be definate about the existence
2007-01-23 16:30:38 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋