The term, a priori, does indeed come from the Latin phrase meaning "from before." For Plato, what is a priori true is that which one "recollects" from the time before one was born, when one dwelt in the paradisaical realm of the eternal Forms. Nowadays, however, the term "a priori" no longer carries the connotation of temporal priority, but instead it refers to a strictly logical priority. So the students are correct that a priori truths are logically independent of sense experience, in that their truth can be established without relying on any physical observations. The example of faith, however, is incorrect, because this is based on feeling or intuition, not reason. I may have faith (firmly believe in) in the existence of God, even if I do not claim to be able to demonstrate his existence with an air-tight logical proof. An example of a priori knowledge would be the Pythagorean theorem, whose truth can be established independently of all sense experience.
Basic Issues in Philosophy
University of Wisconsin-Eau Claire
Dr. Ned Beach
25 September, 1998
(site below, key term #4)
2007-01-23 03:48:37
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answer #1
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answered by aidan402 6
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The term "a priori" is a Latin term which means "from what is before." This is basically used to describe something which is deducted from existing knowledge. either theoretical or empirical. It requires no further proof. Thus something which is a priori is purely logical conclusion.
For example, if A says "the sun will rise tomorrow" or "there will be night after day" these statements are a priori, as A has reached these conclusions without any research but using his existing knowledge.
2014-02-03 16:20:13
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answer #2
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answered by thee :-D 2
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The terms "a priori" and "a posteriori" are used in philosophy to distinguish between two different types of propositional knowledge. Thus, attempts to define clearly or explain a priori and a posteriori knowledge are part of a central thread in epistemology, the study of knowledge. Since the definitions and usage of the terms are disputed and have evolved in the history of philosophy, it is difficult to provide proper definitions of them. Rough and oversimplified explanations are as follows: a priori knowledge is independent of experience, while a posteriori knowledge is dependent on experience. Lawyers sometimes use "a priori" to describe a step in an argument the truth of which can be deduced entirely from the truth of the premises. "A posteriori", on the other hand, requires a bit more evidence.
2007-01-23 03:47:22
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answer #3
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answered by Rob Lowe 2
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"A priori" is latin and it means based on first principles. It means that the next thing follows from the thing that is "a priori"
2007-01-23 03:48:39
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answer #4
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answered by splat 3
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a priori means before hand, in advance
2007-01-23 03:47:34
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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hmmm, here's how I'd put it:
it is something that is known "prior to" or independant of facts, evidence, experience or study
2007-01-23 03:55:42
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answer #6
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answered by Zee 6
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in advance
2007-01-23 04:00:44
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answer #7
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answered by Vesna G 5
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