ok, then i played poker recently and have beeen playing for a month or two. in a game i had 3 fives and my opponent had three 8's. why did he win? what are the rules to do with this? top answer will be the one that answers fully.
thanks
2007-01-23 02:57:45 · 5 answers · asked by andrew 1 in Games & Recreation ➔ Card Games
When you have a "three of a kind" like this, and another player has a "three of a kind" you basically tie. Then, to see who will win the match, whomever has the highest value card wins. In your case, you had 5's, while the opponent had 8's. Since 8 is a higher number than 5, he won.
2007-01-23 03:01:54 · answer #1 · answered by acweyman0906 2 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Because 8 is a greater number than 5. For example if you and another player had 3 8's and you had 3 5's and you had 2 aces and he has 2 Kings , the one with the 3 8's still takes precedence because you have more 8's in your hand than aces and 3 5's takes precedence over 2 kings.
2007-01-23 03:08:22 · answer #2 · answered by Dave aka Spider Monkey 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because 8 is higher than 5!
2007-01-23 03:34:29 · answer #3 · answered by sitwithus 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
beacuse 8 is a higher number than what you had (5's) so he wins.
2007-01-23 03:01:30 · answer #4 · answered by tinkypinkles 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well if i were you i would have had your opponants hand then you would have won wehey!
2007-01-23 06:47:15 · answer #5 · answered by tinabarry5869 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋