Some say it was agriculture that made all this economic inequity possible. I think it was hired labor.
If the first job interviewee EVER in the history of man just stood up and said to the rich guy trying to hire him, "Oh, waaaaaah, so you have too much gold/food/pasture to keep track of it all yourself. Well you won't get ME to do it for minimum wage, no sir! You'll just have to unload some of it and make do with what YOU can handle!"
Then he would have picked up the rich man's excesses and become rich himself. But instead, he chose to work his *** off so some rich guy could laze around all day and pay him next to nothing.
I wish I had a time machine to go talk some sense into him. The bastard....
Ok that's my two cents. What do YOU think?
2007-01-22
13:36:09
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5 answers
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asked by
A Box of Signs
4
in
Social Science
➔ Economics
OK, two people have answered the question, and three people have blathered away about why rich people are better than poor people, which was NOT my question.
And the fifth guy -- there was no economic inequity in hunting-gathering societies. In fact, in pure foraging societies of today, there still isn't!
2007-01-24
06:30:45 ·
update #1