Any English born sportsmen/women are seen as English in the "British" media, Scots are Scots untill they start playing better than the English and then they are called British.
Always have been, always will be unfortunately.
Ha ha ha ha ha WHAT???
quote Ben G
"You claimed Henman for years and you celebrate the medals the English win at the Olympics so dont start this B/S! "
Erm, no we haven't.
2007-01-22 08:04:48
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answer #1
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answered by Hustler 3
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Well, since Dunblane - as a Scottish town - has been part of Britain for the last 300 years (following the Anglo-Scottish 'Act of Union' in 1707) Andrew Murray - or anyone born in Scotland after that time - has been British since birth, and not just 'all of a sudden'.
He plays on the British Davis Cup too.
England and Scotland don't have separate Davis Cup teams, but they do compete separately in the Aberdeen Cup.
2007-01-22 08:29:42
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answer #2
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answered by Neil_R 3
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Andrew "Andy" Murray (born 15 May 1987 in Glasgow), is a Scottish tennis player, who has represented both Scotland and Great Britain in past matches. He has been noted for his frequent outbursts of passion and his natural talent.
In December 2005, he won the BBC Scotland Sports Personality of the Year Award, and the sport section of the Top Scot awards. Murray is the UK's best ranked player having reached a new career high ranking of 15.
Murray is 185 cm tall and generally uses a double-handed backhand. He is currently coached by Brad Gilbert.
2007-01-22 08:09:57
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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He is Scottish and British, as Scotland is apart of what was known as Great Britain (now the United Kingdom). He is just not English (or Welsh or Irish), because he is not from England (or Wales or Northern Ireland). But anyone from Wales, Scotland, England, and N. Ireland are all considered British as they all live in Great Britain.
2007-01-23 06:59:49
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answer #4
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answered by sweetpanther08 6
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He is from dunblane in scotland.
Britain has always played tennis as Britain, rather than England, Wales, Scotland etc. So therefore he is british in tennis terms. If England and Scotland played seperately in the Davis Cup he would be considered scottish
2007-01-22 08:01:37
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answer #5
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answered by parkesmatt 5
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last time i checked dumblane was in Britain. I am british and as a result always support british sportsmen or women, just because he's scottish it doesn't mean i wont support him. i'm pretty sure the scots are supporting english sports people during the olympics, so where is the difference?
2007-01-22 12:18:44
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answer #6
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answered by Stephen M 6
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You claimed Henman for years and you celebrate the medals the English win at the Olympics so dont start this B/S!
Have Murray if you want, but I'll still cheer the lad on.
Why are all the jocks shouting about independance because they've got an elite athlete and a bit of a prescence in the government now?
Boring......... if you want to do one just do it ,,, then suffer the consequences.
Britain is great. The english and Northern Irish know it.
2007-01-22 10:05:47
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answer #7
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answered by Ben G 1
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Dunblane is in Scotland, which is part of the British Isles therefore he is British the only problem here is your spelling and your grammar
2007-01-22 08:06:56
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answer #8
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answered by barn owl 5
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Yes he is. That makes him Scottish AND British, just as Tim Henman is English and British.
2007-01-22 08:02:16
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answer #9
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answered by KB 5
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i have 2 agree ..... andy murray is scottish but if hes playing well hes british ! how many british(welsh) tennis players is there ?
its kinda sad how some english ppl slag off the scots,
welsh n northern irish......... until they start doing well then they are classed as being british !!
its equally sad that scottish ppl cant be proud of our heritage because ppl that live south of hadrians wall call it "anti-english
"
2007-01-22 08:14:52
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answer #10
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answered by delilah 2
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