Is this an indirect variation?

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Is this an indirect variation?

The distance covered if several different people drive 200 miles to the game at variable speeds.

2007-01-22 06:07:51 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help

2 answers

No, because they're all driving the same distance.

What would be an inverse variation would be speed and TIME to travel that distance. That's because as speed increases, the time decreases (and vice versa).

2007-01-23 03:55:23 · answer #1 · answered by dmb 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋