I don't have copy of deed nor did I sign it. Husband feeling insecure.
2007-01-22 03:46:43 · 11 answers · asked by Kim M 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Renting & Real Estate
Your name and your name alone. You don't sigh deeds, nor will you have a copy of it until the house if PAID IN FULL. The mortgage papers are all you have at this point. Hubby should not feel insecure considering your both there together.
2007-01-22 09:08:56 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Did you sign the mortgage papers? Is the mortgage in your name alone or is it in both of your names? If you did sign the paperwork from your lender (that's the only way you can actually get the loan) and he signed it as well, the deed will most likely be in both of your names. It could also be listed as being in your name "et al" which means you and others. The easiest way to find out would be to call your mortgage company and ask them--they will know who's name they listed on the deed. You can also go to your local County Assessor's Office and ask to see the information on your house--it will show who's name the property is in, any lenders/liens and the complete property description as well as the current value.
Good luck!
2007-01-22 04:00:55 · answer #2 · answered by tkltafoya 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Since you just closed on this property, you should still have the paperwork the title company provided you. There is a copy of your deed that you signed (trust me, you signed it) at closing.
It may be just your name, or both of you. Just because your husband isn't on the mortgage doesn't mean he can't be on title.
If you can't find a copy of it in your closing docs, contact the title company ASAP and request a copy.
2007-01-22 04:22:24 · answer #3 · answered by KL 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Most states make you put and your spouse on the deed due to being married and under state laws. That is what they did for me since my wife doesn't have good credit. She is on the deed too due to state law. Check your local library and see if you can find out. Or call a Realtor, or ask the lawyer who did your closing that would be easiest.
2007-01-22 03:55:36 · answer #4 · answered by Chris C 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Should be 'Your Name, a married person'
Mainly dependent on the state you live in. You are legally responsible for that debt. If you divorce / sell your spouse could be legally entitled to half of the profits of said house. Keeping good records of all monies spent and separating your finances / credit from your spouse's would be prudent. Mortgage / Title Co. can verify.
2007-01-22 04:07:36 · answer #5 · answered by Quest 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Didn't you see the unercorded one when you closed on the loan...better get a copy of the recorded deed from the title company....ASAP!
2007-01-22 04:26:19 · answer #6 · answered by boston857 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hi, usual the deed with be in both your names. Just ask the Realtor you used to please sent you your copy. I am not sure how they process this with out your signature. Due to the credit was under your name. Double check and your ( I's & t's).
2007-01-22 03:57:02 · answer #7 · answered by lydiamygirl 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The home is probably in your name. Contact YOUR realtor, they can tell you beyond any doubt, but depending on where you live, the home may be covered under communal property laws if you are legally married. In that case, the home is considered to be jointly held by the marriage, and in case of divorce, both entitled to equal shares of the property.
2007-01-22 03:57:40 · answer #8 · answered by Rides365 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
definite, The deed is who owns the valuables and you do not have the deed till the interior maximum loan is paid. although, depending on state rules, the two may be entitled to a million/2 the fairness from the sale of the valuables in a divorce.
2016-10-31 23:58:56 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
it should be yours,get a copy from the mortgage com..or from the city records dept..even the insuirance co.i think has one...gl
2007-01-22 03:56:37 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋