Is a man who is in a relationship with another man still gay if he has sex with a woman in order to have a child???
2007-01-22 02:39:11 · 11 answers · asked by boinga28 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
Sexual orientation is all about who you desire and are attracted to. Sexual behavior is who you have sex with (regardless of who you are attracted to). Most people tend to behave sexually in a way that's congruent with their sexual orientation, but there are a lot of reasons to not (confused, experimenting, in denial, prostitution, to have children, etc., etc.).
If the man in the relationship with another man enjoys the sex he has with this woman, or is outright attracted to women as well as men, he's bisexual. If he isn't attracted to women, then he's just gay. A lot of people might say that he has to be bisexual, if he was able to have sex with a woman, but there are many ways of getting the deed done even if you find women abhorrent.
Hope that helps.
2007-01-22 04:27:54 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, he's still gay. Any time someone is in a relationship with someone of the same sex, they are considered gay or lesbian. If they bounce back from one sex to the other, they'd be considered bi-sexual.
2007-01-22 10:43:37 · answer #2 · answered by rtddk5 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A bisexual is a person who is attracted to both men and women. Just becuase he has sex with a woman in order to create a child does not mean he is attracted to her and most likely that was the only reason for his actions.
2007-01-22 10:45:19 · answer #3 · answered by KathyS 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
still gay....he is having sex in order to father a child....that does not change his preference...it is not like you can change back and forth. and if he is gay he is gay. bisexual is different. bisexual is really wanting, yearning a relationship or sex with both sexes. sometimes if varies which sex one is more attracted to...
but just because he is having sex with this woman does not mean that he is attracted to her sexually.
2007-01-26 09:33:33 · answer #4 · answered by outofmymind 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. He must drive to the nearest gay export processing zone and turn in his gay key, gay driver's license and gay pass to 6 Rainbow Flags Over Kansas. He can only return to Gaydom after his beautiful, healthy child is born.
2007-01-22 10:59:41 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
YES!! He's still gay!
Procreational sex only does NOT automatically nullify your Gay Card!
Didn't you read the rules on the back of yours when it came with your toaster oven?
2007-01-22 10:43:25 · answer #6 · answered by DEATH 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
a gay man is a gay man because he is exually aroused by men and men alone. wanting a child is a deep and personal quest to which most people know no bounderies.
2007-01-22 10:52:07 · answer #7 · answered by alistairjarvis 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Definately gay.
2007-01-22 11:00:31 · answer #8 · answered by beachguy_41 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I say yes, i say that because he is still have sexual intcourse with his oppisite sex.
2007-01-22 10:46:32 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes!!! People will do almost ANYTHING to have a child of there own.....and i mean anything......
after it all.....he will be as straight as a RAINBOW!
2007-01-22 12:31:54 · answer #10 · answered by adriboho 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋