2007-01-21 09:00:06 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ Books & Authors
he was middle-class...his father was a glover and a city official who married above his own station...his father often had financial issues and you could not classify the Shakespeare's as "rich", but they weren't destitute either...although he had a crest of arms, that didn't make him a nobleman...even after making his money as an actor/writer/theater owner, he was still considered middle class
2007-01-21 09:28:22 · answer #1 · answered by jcresnick 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Shakespeare was born into an upper-middle class family of noted success. He was then successful in his lifetime and continued to live a quite comfortable life.
2007-01-21 09:28:55 · answer #2 · answered by AlaskaGirl 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Shakespeare page.
http://www.field-of-themes.com/shakespeare/
http://www.william-shakespeare.info/site-map.htm
Shakespeare and the Chamberlain's men and the King's men
http://www.william-shakespeare.org.uk/shakespeare-chamberlains-men.htm
Good luck.
2007-01-21 09:31:34 · answer #3 · answered by Retired 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
some people speculate that Shakespeare was a nobleman pretending to be a poor guy... nobody knows for sure. sorry.
2007-01-21 09:14:43 · answer #4 · answered by scarlett 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Upperclass, Firstclass, of Noble birth, wealthy, I would DEFINITELY say YES!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
2007-01-21 09:10:15 · answer #5 · answered by Shunsui Kyouraku is 100% MINE!! 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋