any answeres appreciated doing a darn english critical evaluation and am desprately stuck don't suppose anyone read the merchant of venice and understood it
2007-01-20 23:35:27 · 10 answers · asked by flazu 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Books & Authors
To look objectively,he certainly was a victim foremost and villian to a lesser extent.
the way he was treated"upon the rialto" before the request for the loan was nothing short of bullying.
Critically,the fact that he was ever asked for the loan demonstrates the hypocrisy of the persecution.
The "do I not bleed" speech was an emotional and thoughtful defence against racism long before its time.
The satisfaction demanded from shylock in default of repayment is indeed a monstrous demonstration of the bitter individuals psyche.No amount of persecution could justify such a request.However,that was just an individual reaction to the inherent racist persecution aimed at all jews disguised as distaste for the moneylending profession.Of course without borrowers ,there would be no moneylenders.
The "wisdom " of portia saved the day and showed that the white middle class will triumph over the "evil" jew.
Obviously "the quality of mercy is not strained",and this was shylocks undoing within the story.A chance to redeem himself,wasted.
2007-01-21 00:00:32 · answer #1 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Im in year 10 and i did an essay on this about two or three months ago i agree it is well boring... i put that i think shylock is both a villain and a victim. Err sorry im just trying to remember what i put... at the start of the play Shylock is a victim as he is always being put down by Antonio and his friends. Antonio spits at him and laughs at his religions. Make sure you include comments about there different religions this will get you extra marks. And make sure you include quotes this will also get you extra marks. During the court scene Shylock comes over as a villain. Hope this helps.
2007-01-21 01:30:31 · answer #2 · answered by Dan 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Shylock is both victim and villain. He becomes a villain by seeking revenge on Antonio, who had treated him unjustly and mocked him. He was a victim of the general attitude towards Jews in Christian countries at his time. He was despised and scorned by his fellow traders. Moneylending was one of the few career options open to him as Jews were barred from many professions. His speech "Hath not a Jew eyes...if you prick us, do we not bleed?...And if you wrong us, shall we not revenge?" highlights both aspects victim and villain. He illustrates the contradiction that someone who shares the same human characteristics as his enemies is reviled and treated shamefully. However, his mention of revenge highlights his determination to kill Antonio. He cannot be seen as a true villain, his villainous plot and actions form the core of the play, yet they are actions he has been driven to by a lifetime at the receiving end of prejudice. This does not excuse his intent to lawfully kill Antonio, however it does explain Shylock's actions.
2007-01-21 09:03:33 · answer #3 · answered by scattycat 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Despite the playwright's effort to portray him as a vicious and vindictive man who doesn't care about anything else than money, I'd say he's definitely a victim. It's all this highly racist and unjust treatment of him by the Christians that has pushed him to the edge. His unreasonable request of Antonio's pound of flesh is nothing more than all this suppressed anger and indignation at their prejudiced attitude towards him. In my opinion, he has done nothing wrong; he's just different. He has different religious beliefs and another way of thinking. His becoming a Christian at the end is society's typical response to difference and individuality; intolerance and wish to homogenize otherwise eliminate.
P.S. I don't think Shakespeare is against the Jews.
I believe he uses this highly offensive language against
Jews in order to expose the falsehood and hypocricy of
Christian formalists.
2007-01-21 02:29:57 · answer #4 · answered by maggie 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Both, I think. He was a victim because of his place in society, but a villain because he was implaccable and cruel. How much one circumstance had influenced the other, I don't know. Some people who are society's butts or underdogs don't react by acting stereotypically.
2007-01-21 01:02:29 · answer #5 · answered by sallyotas 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He was definitely both.
He was a victim of the times:
Jews had no chance at a decent life then!
He was also a villain: look how he treats his daughter!
He even says:
I would she were dead and I had my jewels again.
(Act III, scene 1, lines 72 ff)
So, to come back to your question:
He was a monster with some dignity.
If you prick us, do we not bleed? etc
(Act III, scene 1, lines 49 ff)
You are welcome
2007-01-20 23:48:31 · answer #6 · answered by saehli 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The story's not very complicated is it? I mean, depends on your point of view how you want to approach Shylock, really.
2007-01-20 23:42:17 · answer #7 · answered by Cold Bird 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
shylock is a villian.cuz he demands a pound of flesh.n he is interests only in profit.
2007-01-21 00:21:58 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Try not to steal the whole thing verbatim.
xxB
2007-01-20 23:42:03 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
ye ye
2007-01-20 23:38:21 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋