kings out weigh queens due to the fact elizebeth is the royal he cannot have designation over her so her husband is a prince.
2007-01-20 22:35:42
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answer #1
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answered by warr31 4
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Because he isn't the king. He is in the line of succession, but, well down the list - in the 50's somewhere. So, the Queen and 50 odd other people would need to die for him to become king. In most places, including the UK, a woman can use a courtesy form of the man's name and title, but, it doesn't work the other way round. Thus Miss Sally Jones can use the name Mrs John Smith after she marries. In the same way Miss Sally Jones can become Princess John if she marries a prince. But, if the Queen married a commoner, he would be a simple Mister. In fact, Phillip gave up his foreign titles to marry Elizabeth, and was given the Dukedom by King George. Elizabeth created him a Prince of the UK 10 years after their marriage. If these two things were not done, he would be a Mister to this day.
2016-05-24 04:22:27
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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As is the case with Queen Elizabeth II and Prince Phillip, It is traditional that the head of state be English and of the Royal Family, and PREFERABLY male. The theory is that a male regent is better than a female regent, even if they are married.
So if a King marries and has a Queen, that King is still more important than the Queen
But if a British Queen marries a may say, from Greece, then said man can't have the title of King because it would SOUND as if he outranked her, when the state doesn't.
Therefor, When the queen marries (in Briitish Royalty anyway) the husband becomes a Prince, so that the core royal family is always above rank than who marries into the royal family.
Edited to add: A MASSIVE exception to this rule will be if Charles ascends the throne. Because he is divorced to Diana, and the Royal family disapproved of him cheating with Camilla at the time, and because their wedding was a civil one and not a Church of England one, Camilla will be a Princess Consort at that time and never be Queen.
2007-01-20 22:51:45
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answer #3
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answered by John Smith 3
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If a King is married, his wife is Queen, but if a Queen marries, her husband is not King but he's called prince consort and in this case Queen Elizabeth II's husband,Philip, is the Duke of Edinburgh. I'm almost sure a man cannot inherit a kingdom by being married to a Queen.
Good luck!
2007-01-21 07:59:46
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answer #4
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answered by Luli 4
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Prince Philip is a Prince in his own right, being descended from Queen Victoria's daughter Alice, but of Greece & Denmark because of his mother's marriage. He is thus not in line to the British throne ahead of Elizabeth, daughter of a King.
Primogeniture in England has long been the tradition, placing males in precedence to females, but that is only part of the answer. Yes, a King would take precedence over a Queen to whom he is married, because of primogeniture, but in this instance Philip was NOT a British subject either until he took naturalisation upon marriage. He was created Duke of Edinburgh by his wife when she acceeded to the throne.
Charles, William or any other male ascending the British throne would have his wife as queen (as was HM Queen elizabeth the Queen Mother) since the British Constitution does not allow morganatic mariage.
2007-01-28 03:42:02
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answer #5
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answered by Duffer 6
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He's not king because he's not a direct descendant of the royal family. He can be considered king consort, which means he's married to the queen but has no royal authority whatsoever. When Charles becomes queen I don't think Camilla will ever be called queen of england.
2007-01-28 10:16:16
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answer #6
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answered by Phoebe 4
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tHE QUEEN made him a prince. And from birth he already came from a royal stock.
As for the matter of him not being a Prince. I asked that same queston my friend the other day. She states that he could not become a king, because the English throne belonged to Queen Elizabeth. If he had made King to the English throne he would have taken away the crown from Elizabeth. So that would have been bad I guess for Elizabeth and the British.
Here is a webite hope this will help you.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prince_Philip,_Duke_of_Edinburgh
2007-01-22 02:32:33
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answer #7
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answered by angelikabertrand64 5
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It started with Queen Victoria. Now she was a teenager when she came to the throne, after her father and last uncle died. When she fell in love with Albert, a prince from a German Province, it was not popular with her subjects or ministers. England had already had German Kings after the last of the Stuart Kings and Queens died.
Queen Victoria agreed to the title Prince Consort, to appease her subjects and ministers anti-german sentiment. It has remained or set a precedent for Queen Elizabeth and Prince Phillip, who by the way was a Prince in his own right before they married, and Prince Charles and his Camilla.
2007-01-27 16:47:18
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answer #8
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answered by beaton_tlc 2
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The husband of the Queen is a Duke, not a prince.
If a King is married, his wife is Queen, but if a Queen marries, her husband is not King - Im not sure why this is, but it could be so that a man cannot inherit a kingdom by being married to a Queen.
2007-01-20 22:33:56
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes a King is the highset position in royalty, which is why he can have a Queen. As a Queen is second highest, if she does become absolute regent, like Elizabeth 2nd, then her consort can not rank higher than her, thus he becomes a Prince!
2007-01-20 22:47:10
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answer #10
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answered by bichonbeauty 3
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the queens husband is in fact queens consult, she is the queen, the queen tried to have prince phillip called king consult but the government rejected it.the queen is of royal blood, her husband need not be, i
2007-01-24 14:18:49
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answer #11
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answered by johnfleming32 2
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