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Would it be, you scr*wed me so I get it all. No, you scr*wed me; I get it all. That sounds too much like a regualr devorce.

It would have to be, 2 women, they both get it all; 2 men, none of them get anything.

Something's wrong! No wonder the gevernment don't want them to get married. Funny how in that case it would be equal.

Something's wrong with regualr marraiges. No wonder men are turning gay. Go finger women as to why they do it.

2007-01-20 08:38:13 · 9 answers · asked by kasar777 3 in Society & Culture Cultures & Groups Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender

9 answers

LOL

LOL

LOL

LOL

LMAO

I think most of that would have to be decided ahead of time. Otherwise, it would be like roommates seperating. What's mine is mine, what's yours is yours, and what's ours we have to decide how to dispose of.

LOL

2007-01-20 09:53:02 · answer #1 · answered by ramman 4 · 0 0

Women are most often caretakers of the children born into the marriage. Raising children is enormously expensive. Your idea of marriage is very distorted. People marry because they love each other, whether it be a man and a woman, 2 men, or 2 women. In most states, assets purchased during the marriage are usually divided in half to be fair to both parties involved.

2007-01-20 16:44:07 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

If there is a conveyance of legal rights as there would be in "civil unions" or "same-sex marriages", then the division of real and personal property would be subject to the same statutory regulations as any other division of property in a dissolution in the state in which the dissolution takes place. To subject same-sex unions/marriages to a different standard of equitableness would invite a big, old discrimination suit that would likely prevail in in the courts.

2007-01-20 16:47:49 · answer #3 · answered by morahastits 4 · 0 0

Property would be split up the same as any other divorce or common-law breakup. If they couldn't decide who got to keep what, I suppose they sell it and split the money. The person with higher income gets to pay alimony, and they can fight over who gets the kids and who gets to pay child support.

2007-01-20 16:43:03 · answer #4 · answered by sankayak 3 · 0 0

Apparently your ex-wife got the Spell Check button in the divorce.

2007-01-20 16:44:20 · answer #5 · answered by ? 6 · 3 0

According to state law, just like any other marriage

2007-01-20 16:41:14 · answer #6 · answered by Tegarst 7 · 3 0

It would be the same as a straight marriage...one person gets everything and the other person gets bugger all.

2007-01-20 17:34:45 · answer #7 · answered by IamBatman 4 · 0 0

probably much more equally

2007-01-20 16:42:45 · answer #8 · answered by Josephus 4 · 1 0

You can't be serious.

2007-01-20 17:18:23 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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