In Oedipus - Shakespeare is said "Children, it were not meet that I should learn ...".Why it's used "it were"?

Question

I know it's the subjunctive mood but I don't know why the subjunctive was used. Any ideas? Thanks.

Answer 1

Not sure I get the Shakespeare reference, but several translations of Oedipus Rex use the subjunctive "were" that you point out. Some of these translations are not all that old, so don't buy the Middle English explanation (Shakespeare wasn't Middle English anyway; Chaucer is).

As to grammar, the subjunctive is primarily used to express a wish or a contrary-to-fact condition: "If I were a rich man" from Fiddler on the Roof. What Oedipus is saying here is that he wishes he had learned in some other manner about the despair of his subjects. I hope that helps.

Answer 2

Oedipus Rex--or Oedipus the King--was written by Sophocles, not Shakespeare. During the Renaissance, the works of Greek and Roman dramatists was rediscovered, and most of the common wording in the translations we read today was done then, so the usage is that of the 15 and 1600s. It reads a little funny to us in 2007.

Answer 3

Well, I don't recall that Shakespeare wrote Oedipus Rex...but he did refer to it in several works.
In that time English was closer to its roots, namely Latin. Take a look at any foreign language, and if its translation is an actual translation, you will find it is subjunctive. Take this for instance....Je t'aime. Literally means: I you do love.

Also, he did write in "court" English, which was much more forma, and old fashioned, than what was in popular use among the underclass of London.

Answer 4

Shakespeare did not write a version of the Oedipus saga. He alludes to it in several plays, but to my knowledge never mentions it by name.

Answer 5

It is Middle English--different grammar rules apply.

Answer 6

A different grammar, and style were used back then.