2007-01-20 01:41:55 · 8 answers · asked by Nellie Rose B 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
The term Philippines is of colonial origin.
"It came from the word Filipinas, of which Philippines is the English translation. Felipinas was the name given by the Spanish explorer Ruy de Villalobos to Tendaya (Leyte or Samar) in 1543 in honor of the Spanish crown prince, Philip (Felipe in Spanish),3 who later became King Philip II (r. 1556–98). Villalobos later applied Felipinas to all the islands of the (Philippine) archipelago." - http://cpcabrisbane.org/Kasama/2003/V17n3/ColonialName.htm
2007-01-20 01:50:29 · answer #1 · answered by ? 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The Philippines are a group of islands that make up the Republic of the Philippines.
2007-01-20 09:46:29 · answer #2 · answered by TexasChick 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The Philippines are a group of islands in the Pacific Ocean beneath Asia. They were important in the Spanish American War at the end of the 19th century where USA purchased them for $22 million. Also important in 'island hopping' of WWII.
2007-01-20 11:09:41 · answer #3 · answered by snackycakes64 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What IS the meaning of Philippines?
It is a country located in south east Asia. It comprises a group of islands hence it is refered in the plural form.
2007-01-20 09:51:34 · answer #4 · answered by Brunette 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I honestly can't tell if you are asking about the Republic of the Phillipines or for an interpretation and comment on Paul's Epistle to the Phillipians.
2007-01-20 09:52:19 · answer #5 · answered by Evita Rodham Clinton 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's a country. Actually, where im from. It was named after King Phillipe II of Spain.
2007-01-20 09:47:10 · answer #6 · answered by akira 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
They're some islands where filipinos live. they make up the republic of the phillipines.
2007-01-20 11:44:52 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Texaschic gave you the right answer.
2007-01-20 09:51:22 · answer #8 · answered by Step 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋