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May I have the answer by tommorow please

2007-01-19 19:27:17 · 4 answers · asked by J 1 in Science & Mathematics Physics

4 answers

It depends mostly on whether they were born deaf/blind or if they became deaf/blind through some accident and at what age that happened.
Someone who never hears or sees wont be able to hear or see anything in their dreams either.
If someone had some kind of accident that made them deaf/blind, then they will be able to see and hear in their dreams. I think this scenario is also affected at their age. If someone became blind at, say, 10 yo, they may always see things as a 10yo, like their parents being taller than them. That parts my own pure speculation, however.

2007-01-19 19:38:23 · answer #1 · answered by Suraya 3 · 0 0

Change the word 'death' to 'deaf '.

Dreams are actions of brain. Both blind and deaf have dreams about the experience they had felt.

2007-01-20 00:11:25 · answer #2 · answered by Pearlsawme 7 · 0 0

the answer to both would depend on if not they had loss there senses of sight or hearing before they lost them really

2007-01-19 19:39:01 · answer #3 · answered by pen 3 · 0 0

death people hear nothing, they are cold and heartless. Their only enjoyment is killing others and they hear nothing. Also this has nothing to do with Physics

2007-01-19 19:30:51 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

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