lim(x/ln(x)) + 2
x -> infinity
To solve this, we use L'Hospital's rule, as we have the form
[infinity/infinity]. Therefore, taking the derivative of the top and bottom,
lim (1/(1/x)) + 2
x -> infinity
=
lim (x) + 2
x -> infinity
Which doesn't exist.
2007-01-19 09:11:27
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answer #1
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answered by Puggy 7
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an easy way to figure to see what is growing fastest, x or lnx? if x is fastest then it will be infinity but if lnx is faster then the first term will be zero. forget about the +2 for now. in calculus you learn a method of L'hopitals. where you take the derivative of the top divided by the derivative of the bottom thus it would turn out 1/(1/x) as x goes to infinity the term would get huge!! thus it goes to infinity.
2007-01-19 17:17:12
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answer #2
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answered by Beauregard B 2
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Use L'Hospital's rule for indeterminant forms. In this case it is â/â.
lim xââ of [(x/lnx)] + 2 = lim xââ of [1/(1/x)] + 2 = 1/0 + 2 = â
2007-01-19 17:11:36
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answer #3
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answered by Northstar 7
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Well, sounds like you would use L'hopitals rule since when you plug in infinity for x you get infinity divided by infinity.
Therefor you must take the derivitive of the top divided by the derivitive of the bottom and you will get:
1/(1/X) = X
Lim (x), x-> infinity = Infinity
2007-01-19 17:51:10
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answer #4
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answered by Mariko 4
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It's opposite to a decaying exponential which keeps going to zilch.
But the answer is "a little more than" infinity. Not a lot more mind you, but just a little more... so don't exaggerate it.
Right now I'm writing it out in decimal form so it will be a while before I get back with you... a little longer than eternity but not a lot more.
BRB
2007-01-19 17:22:38
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answer #5
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answered by Raylene G. 4
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Puggy is right...I does not exist...or in other words it is infinity
2007-01-19 17:13:32
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answer #6
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answered by 24_m_gr 2
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Is this an actual question because you WANT to know or is this your homework?
Go to math.com
2007-01-19 17:11:35
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answer #7
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answered by public-opinion08 2
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â
2007-01-19 17:10:43
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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