English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

5 answers

PLEASE, stop passing your homework to us. lol

2007-01-23 06:59:52 · answer #1 · answered by Specter 3 · 0 0

The status of women is not a direct input into the calculation of the HDI which is based on health, educational level, and income. There is another index ( Gender development index) where it is an additional term to the HDI. There is a 98% correlation between the 2 indexes. The HDI also has a 68% correlation with the political power held by women in a country and the use of contraception by married women.
see correlations at
http://www.nationmaster.com/correlations/eco_hum_dev_ind-economy-human-development-index

2007-01-19 22:31:46 · answer #2 · answered by meg 7 · 0 0

Not necessarily. It has to be taken into perception as what you define as the status of woman.. Do you know that the rapes in United States outweigh many fold than India or other South Asian countries. So you know that they hold more power in many 3rd world countries like Liberia, India, Sri Lanka etc.
So I can't really relate Human Index with the status of woman.. Probably it is universally the same except Muslim countries. In Saudi Arabia or UAE woman don't enjoy the same social or legal benefits as in many 3rd world countries even though they rank very high in the HDI. This is more a debatable topic than something which has a definite answer.

2007-01-19 15:10:44 · answer #3 · answered by FC Arsenal Fan 2 · 0 0

No.
However there is a noticeable correlation btwn low HDI and harsh dictatorship. Countries without a balance of power generally subjugate their people; so most live in poverty.

The status of women is directly related to a country's culture/religion.

2007-01-19 15:15:41 · answer #4 · answered by limendoz 5 · 0 0

idk.....no? ya...ima say no since that's wut the otha pplz sed lol...peace!

2007-01-19 15:23:51 · answer #5 · answered by nat 2 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers