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2007-01-19 03:47:13 · 3 answers · asked by halfway 4 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

Is it fair to a person is is only partially negligent? Doesn't it discriminate against the people who have money?

2007-01-19 04:38:30 · update #1

3 answers

If you enter into a contract where both parties are jointly and sevrally liable then we assume you read the contract and understood the implications.

It is fair. If there is a default.....say a joint bank account is overdrawn....then the offended party will naturally go after the one with the deepest pockets.

2007-01-19 03:59:29 · answer #1 · answered by Jack 6 · 0 0

Yes. It was designed to be fair and impartial.

2007-01-19 11:59:16 · answer #2 · answered by Starla_C 7 · 0 0

Yes.... its designed to protect the person harmed.

2007-01-19 12:00:57 · answer #3 · answered by a 4 · 0 0

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