2007-01-18 10:13:37 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in News & Events ➔ Media & Journalism
No. First off, it does not apply to the "press" in general. What it does do is insure equal access to licensed broadcast media. The airwaves (radio and tv) are held as a public trust for all the people, not just for the exclusive use of a few corporations who wish to limit access to those whose agenda they choose to support.
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2007-01-18 10:26:33 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it does because while you're still allowed to say what you want, you now have to say what the liberals want you to say as well. Free press means you say what you want and ONLY what YOU want. Take advantage of your amendments before they're gone.
2007-01-18 10:19:10 · answer #2 · answered by bsbfrk411 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No.
It simply encourages fair and accurate press.
2007-01-18 10:16:38 · answer #3 · answered by Barrett G 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. What's wrong with the way things are now?
2007-01-18 10:23:58 · answer #4 · answered by Rabbit 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋