Here's the situation: I sell custom portraits via eBay occassionally. This is the wording on my auctions:
Send me a photo of your choice and I will create an 8x10" portrait using Prismacolor pencils, watercolor and ink.
I also explain that I need a high resolution photo and that I will send a email preview as soon as it's done. I offer optional shipping insurance as well as offering to answer any questions as quickly as possible.
I had a recent customer whose portrait (despite packaging it in a padded envelope and cardboard) was damaged during shipping. She was very happy with the portrait (said it was stunning) except for the tear on one of the faces. She opted out of shipping insurance, so I felt that a partial refund was more then fair, however she wouldn't send me photo proof of the damage. So she went to Paypal and filed a claim. They told her to go get a quote for repair from her local art shop. The people at the art shop looked at it very closely and...
2007-01-18
08:18:45
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4 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Arts & Humanities
➔ Visual Arts
➔ Drawing & Illustration
...informed her about the method in which I made her portrait, in other words that it wasn't 100% hand done and was computer aided.
She bought a 16"x20" portrait for $60, needed me to put 2 people from 2 different photos together in one portrait and needed it within 3 weeks. I arranged the people together digitally, and had to manipulate the man's eyes to look open (they were closed in the photo). I then had the file printed very lightly (20% opacity) and used the print as a sketch. I then took hours to shade, color and fill in every aspect and detail with prismacolors. All the print did was take out the tracing and sketch work. Anyway, she is now upset and has reported me to UK's Trading Standards for false advertising. However, what difference does it make about the method I used to achieve a portrait? Especially since she loved it initially, and I never claimed it was hand-done? Your thoughts?
2007-01-18
08:26:31 ·
update #1