2007-01-18 07:57:53 · 7 answers · asked by DAWN C 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
the spanish (mexico)
your asking about America right?
2007-01-18 08:01:58 · answer #1 · answered by B S 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It would help if you were more specific. But, taking a guess at what you mean, all of the Southwestern USA used to belong to Mexico. Before that, Spain ... when the European nations were exploring the New World and laying claim to land left and right, the Spanish were the ones who claimed what's now the Southwest US.
2007-01-18 16:17:30 · answer #2 · answered by Navigator 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Spain, www.history.com There conquest of the Natives of the southwestern areas of North America enabled them to migrate into that territory and take possession. There were French as well involved in that endeavor. However they lost the territory here in America for they ruled in tyranny and the natives rebelled within the territory called Mexico today, and they were driven out after we won with Sam Houston the Texas territories. Mexico subsequently then had our help in ridding their country and becoming a free state away from Spain and France occupiers.
2007-01-18 16:16:56 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Southwest what? When are you talking about? In 1250 or 1990? Could you be more specific?
2007-01-18 16:02:46 · answer #4 · answered by magpie_queen 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Mexico. Actually the entire Southwest.
2007-01-18 16:02:25 · answer #5 · answered by harveymac1336 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Spain
2007-01-18 16:36:02 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Spain, then Mexico after it got its independence from Spain in 1821
2007-01-19 23:25:04 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋