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F=force
k=proportionality constant
m=mass
a=acceleration.

2007-01-18 01:34:28 · 14 answers · asked by teju 1 in Science & Mathematics Physics

14 answers

this is because the S.I units are choosen in such a way that the K=1.

2007-01-18 01:48:47 · answer #1 · answered by pankaj 2 · 2 0

dont think abt friction etc like others told u.
the expression for force is mass x acceleration
F= M X A.
if F= KMA
THEN K = F/ MA
IF MA = F THEN K = 1

2007-01-18 01:45:45 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

force is directly proportional to mass and acceleration. To use the relation, we need to convert it into an equation. that is done by adding k (the constant of proportionality). Experimentally, the value of this constant is found to be 1. (constants are generally measured experimentally).

2007-01-19 04:23:17 · answer #3 · answered by vish 2 · 0 1

the law states that force is directly propertional to the rate of change of momentum...
so F=k(dp/dt)
using proportionality constant k
this results in F=kma....

by experimental results and deciding the units in such a way, scientists have calculated that k comes out to be 1....

so the equation reduces to F=ma
and that's all

2007-01-18 22:28:19 · answer #4 · answered by manjul_aqua 2 · 0 0

As far as i know, there is no constant k in this equation

Becouse:
Force is the rate of change of momentum
In another words force is the derivative of momentum with respect to time

F = dP / dt

since momentum equals mass times velocity
P = mv

F= d(mv) / dt
Since m is constant for the object that we study, so we bring it out from the derivation

therfor: F = m (dv / dt) --------------- (1)

since (dv / dt) is the rate of change of velocity with respect to time
dv / dt = acceleration ------------- subistiute in (1)

therfor:
F = ma

i hope u got ur point from my explanation

2007-01-18 05:29:52 · answer #5 · answered by Kevin 5 · 0 0

Good question!
However I think it is

F=(k^2)ma

Where still k=1

Just kidding, but kidding aside

Proportionality is a mathematical quality that is a relationship between variables in a particular region. So in a classical region (v

2007-01-18 01:37:59 · answer #6 · answered by Edward 7 · 0 0

In all the gibberish above there is only one correct answer .. that of chinki. If the meter had been defined to be half the length it is then k would equal 2.

2007-01-20 03:02:52 · answer #7 · answered by Dr Ditto 2 · 0 0

Not always. k is used I think in determining friction, I think...

F != kma, they are different letters.

F = F.

k is also not a constant. In life, nothing is constant.

2007-01-18 01:41:52 · answer #8 · answered by mipsaction 1 · 0 2

F=kma

1 newton force is that force required to give 1m/s2 acceleration to 1 kg particle.(Considered)

F=1N m=1kg a=1m/s2

1=k*1*1
So k=1

2007-01-21 00:00:35 · answer #9 · answered by Tariq M 3 · 0 0

It is because F divided by ma or ma divided by F is always 1. In fact, we don't have the k in the formula here. It's just F=ma.

2007-01-18 01:43:19 · answer #10 · answered by HopeGrace 4 · 0 0

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