this is because the S.I units are choosen in such a way that the K=1.
2007-01-18 01:48:47
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answer #1
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answered by pankaj 2
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dont think abt friction etc like others told u.
the expression for force is mass x acceleration
F= M X A.
if F= KMA
THEN K = F/ MA
IF MA = F THEN K = 1
2007-01-18 01:45:45
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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force is directly proportional to mass and acceleration. To use the relation, we need to convert it into an equation. that is done by adding k (the constant of proportionality). Experimentally, the value of this constant is found to be 1. (constants are generally measured experimentally).
2007-01-19 04:23:17
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answer #3
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answered by vish 2
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the law states that force is directly propertional to the rate of change of momentum...
so F=k(dp/dt)
using proportionality constant k
this results in F=kma....
by experimental results and deciding the units in such a way, scientists have calculated that k comes out to be 1....
so the equation reduces to F=ma
and that's all
2007-01-18 22:28:19
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answer #4
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answered by manjul_aqua 2
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As far as i know, there is no constant k in this equation
Becouse:
Force is the rate of change of momentum
In another words force is the derivative of momentum with respect to time
F = dP / dt
since momentum equals mass times velocity
P = mv
F= d(mv) / dt
Since m is constant for the object that we study, so we bring it out from the derivation
therfor: F = m (dv / dt) --------------- (1)
since (dv / dt) is the rate of change of velocity with respect to time
dv / dt = acceleration ------------- subistiute in (1)
therfor:
F = ma
i hope u got ur point from my explanation
2007-01-18 05:29:52
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answer #5
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answered by Kevin 5
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Good question!
However I think it is
F=(k^2)ma
Where still k=1
Just kidding, but kidding aside
Proportionality is a mathematical quality that is a relationship between variables in a particular region. So in a classical region (v
2007-01-18 01:37:59
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answer #6
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answered by Edward 7
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In all the gibberish above there is only one correct answer .. that of chinki. If the meter had been defined to be half the length it is then k would equal 2.
2007-01-20 03:02:52
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answer #7
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answered by Dr Ditto 2
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Not always. k is used I think in determining friction, I think...
F != kma, they are different letters.
F = F.
k is also not a constant. In life, nothing is constant.
2007-01-18 01:41:52
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answer #8
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answered by mipsaction 1
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F=kma
1 newton force is that force required to give 1m/s2 acceleration to 1 kg particle.(Considered)
F=1N m=1kg a=1m/s2
1=k*1*1
So k=1
2007-01-21 00:00:35
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answer #9
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answered by Tariq M 3
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It is because F divided by ma or ma divided by F is always 1. In fact, we don't have the k in the formula here. It's just F=ma.
2007-01-18 01:43:19
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answer #10
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answered by HopeGrace 4
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