I would like to know if after u file for divorce and you or your spouse start dating someone else can one of the parties claim adultry?
2007-01-18 01:10:00 · 6 answers · asked by Renee 2 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
They can claim all they want to. They have to prove that the relationship was going on before the separation AND have to prove that the marriage desolved as a result of it.
2007-01-18 01:13:50 · answer #1 · answered by protruckdriver71 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I actually were divorced for over ten years now. My youthful babies were fairly youthful even as it got here about and for the longest time I wasn't attracted to courting both. between complete-time artwork and making positive I frolicked with them, i did not even attempt. yet about 6 years in the past i began to experience otherwise and finally began courting. besides the undeniable fact that, everyone who got here on too reliable, I did a similar as you. i'd only be difficulty-free with them and enable them keep in mind that what you want at present might want to be friendship, conceivable to bypass out and revel of their corporation, no longer some thing too heavy. it truly is sturdy you're growing out. i do not imagine you should provide that up. A divorce, no count number what the challenge, takes on a grieving era. one 3 hundred and sixty 5 days isn't that lengthy. In my case, I likely went too lengthy - lol. sturdy success!
2016-11-25 01:09:27 · answer #2 · answered by sickels 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Technically, yes... practically speaking NO. Not sure about family law in Texas, but if you filed for divorce and are going out with someone else ... technically it could be considered adultery but practically no court wants to hear about it.
2007-01-18 01:24:00 · answer #3 · answered by morahastits 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I am not sure one this one but you should talk to your attorney and see what the laws and ins and outs of it are there in that state.... If they are still living with you it may be considered adultery expecially if you are having sex with the other person but like i said I am not sure!
2007-01-18 01:48:34 · answer #4 · answered by Lady Hewitt 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i think so if you can prove that the other partie was involved while you and your spouse were still together that even goes for "freindship" too because the intention is still there....been there done that...chow eve
2007-01-18 01:23:12 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
NO AS LONG AS YOU WERE BOTH LEGALLY SEPARATED, YOU CAN'T. BUT TO REALLY MAKE SURE TALK TO YOUR LAWYER AND FIND OUT. BUT IM PRETTY SURE IM RIGHT.
2007-01-18 01:17:37 · answer #6 · answered by misty blue 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋