2007-01-17 08:29:06 · 4 answers · asked by bhardwaj_desai 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Investing
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2007-01-17 18:27:57 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
The measure of Beta is very simple.
Measure it against the performance of the SPY.
Put that into a number relative to 1, and you have the answer.
Simply put, it is calculated the same way as the Beta of the stock.
Confirmed YES. There are no 2 ways about it.
KKP
2007-01-18 11:45:24 · answer #2 · answered by KKP_Investor 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I dont know if the above answer is correct or not.I think not, as the beta should be representative of the funds
performance, not just the underlying stocks as mututal
funds trade in and out of stocks, as well as do hedging with derivitives, options, etc.
I have no problem being proved wrong though... :)
2007-01-17 13:20:55 · answer #3 · answered by jeffpa 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I believe it is the weighted average of the betas of the underlying equities.
2007-01-17 08:33:25 · answer #4 · answered by Rich D 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋