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is -1>m<-2 a no solution?

if not how do you get no solution and all real #'s sometimes for an answer thanks

2007-01-17 08:15:29 · 1 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference Homework Help

1 answers

no, you can break it up into two innequalities:
-1 > m
m < -2

So, since -1 >m and -2 > m, ANYTHING less than -2 satisfies both innequalities. So your solution is (- infinity, -2) or m < -2.

You can get "no solution" infinitely many ways. One example would be saying x < -1 and x > 2. There is no solution "x" that satisfies both innequalities.
You can also get "all real #'s" infinitely many ways. One example would be x < or equal to l x l
(read as x less than or equal to absolute value of x) This statement is true for all real #'s.

2007-01-17 08:24:17 · answer #1 · answered by Ace 4 · 0 0

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